The problem with Cynic's approach -quoting statutes- is that it's too simplistic. (And that is not meant to be derogatory to Cynic who seems to be a quite intelligent person)
Non-lawyers frequently believe that if a statute says X,Y, and Z, then it means X, Y, and Z. But the full meaning and application of statutes still comes from the judges as they apply it in particular cases. Thus one needs to read case law to see what the statute really means.
If, for example, you found Smith v. Colorado, and in that case the judge said the kidnapping statute applies to dead bodies, then it does, even though the statute doesn't say so. OTOH, if the judge found that the statute doesn't apply to dead bodies, then it doesn't, even though the statute really doesn't say one way or the other. That's a pretty simple example, but it suffices to make the point.
The reason I point this out is because Doc has said something obviously true, even though the statute appears to say different. Every parent has had the experience of carrying a child to bed - a child that does not want to go to bed. Carrying your 6 year old upstairs to her bedroom while she kicks and screams "I don't want to go to bed!" is carrying her against her will. It is not kidnapping in the US, or, I suspect, anywhere else on this planet. There is something in the statute about "W/o lawful justification". To put that in other words, there needs to be intent on the part of the person carrying the victim. Intent to commit one of the listed crimes for which the felony murder rule can be applied. Or the carrying needs to be part and parcel of committing a crime.
So to apply the felony murder rule, in the context of kidnapping, we'd have to prove JB was moved, against her will, as part of the plan to molest/kill/conceal her from the other parent, etc.
We can have our theories of how she got there, but proving it is difficult.