Another point in his lawsuit that I find very telling.
She accused him of a specific form of assault (sodomy), leaving the impression that this was the act she objected to (since encounter started consensually and they already had prior consensual encounters). I certainly find it believable that this type of situation could happen.
But yet he has a message from her (which he included in the lawsuit), requesting that specific act.
However I feel about the actual case, I don' see how this is good for him or her at all. I can send my husband all kinds of texts about wanting to be anally penetrated. He can still rape me. The same can be said of an acquaitance, or someone I have previously been intimate with.