I'm going through the thread now on last night's show (great posts, everyone!). I haven't gotten through all posts yet, so please excuse this if someone has already addressed this. My questions are about the whole sexual abuse thing that was covered last night, so I need some help from one of the Websleuth experts to help me understand this.
When I watched the show last night I was also in the chat room at the same time, and I think I initially misinterpreted what Spitz and Lee were saying. I'd *originally* thought they were say that after Spitz examined the microscope slide, he concluded that there was no evidence of *prior* sexual abuse before JonBenet's death. But when I went back later and rewatched this segment, I think I got that wrong and what Spitz and Lee were actually saying was that there was no evidence of sexual abuse/sexual trauma/sexual intrusion (whatever words you want to use) ON THE NIGHT she was killed. Do I have that right? (If so, my apologies to bubbiegirl because in the chat room I told her the opposite!)
So if I have that right, can fellow WS members help me with the following questions:
1. Am I correct that the experts *never* addressed on the show last night whether or not there was evidence of ongoing, recurring sexual abuse happening prior to the night JonBenet was killed?
2. If they are saying there was no sexual intrusion the night she was killed, where did the blood in JBR's underwear come from? (Kolar asks this as well on the show and I felt he wasn't given a very convincing answer). And as other posters have already stated, this was a fresh pair of underwear she was put in, so a prior pair of undies might have had even more blood on it. Plus, am I remembering correctly that the smear on JBR's thigh (which was found during the autopsy) was actually determined to be JBR's own blood that had been wiped away by something (a cloth or whatever)? So if no sexual intrusion that night (made by a paint brush or some other object), where did this blood come from?
3. If the experts last night are saying no sexual abuse the night she was killed, then how do they explain the inflamation and blood in the vaginal vault that was found and documented in the autopsy?
Thanks in advance for anyone's help in making sense of this for me!