I am curious about how an autopsy is worded. Pulmonary edema is something that can be visually seen, but not porphyria (at least not from my brief research). And from what I've read, testing for it can be pretty tricky, especially if a person is not in the middle of an acute attack. So does the autopsy report then say that she definitively HAD porphyria? And if so, how does a coroner come to that conclusion post mortem? I thought it was questioned as a possible dx a few years back, but the way I've read snippets regarding the autopsy, it seems as if the porphyria is being listed as a component that was existing at the time of her death, if not a compounding or contributing factor (before it was changed to suicide).
I'm curios b/c I'm assuming that porphyria could have lead to pulmonary edema, in which case it might seem a slam dunk for 'natural causes'. However, it would be REALLY lackadaisical and negligent IMO to go on a prior health history presumption and not actually test to see if the 'maybe' dx was even existing.