IMO, “VOLUNTARY intoxication” of a prescription medication seems a whole lot like what might, in other cases involving different types of defendants, simply be termed “drug abuse.” People who “voluntarily” use their prescription meds in a manner intended to render them “intoxicated” are—literally—drug abusers, are they not? The fact that the defense is (IMO again) already using evasive language suggests they’re grasping at straws in an effort to get their young client off with the lightest possible sentence.