I have a problem with the legal concept of pre-med as used by the state of AZ. Maybe the lawyers can comment. Let's say we have 2 scenarios:
1) Arias pre-planned the murder a week earlier and did all of the steps such as the gas cans, gun burglary, etc. She waited until the time was right, carried it out, and relished each thrust of the knife.
2) There was no pre-planning; she just visited TA to 'hang out' for a while. The knife is on the sink from cutting the rope earlier. She drops the camera, and Travis says, "You f*cking idiot--a five year-old could handle the camera better than you!", but he makes no attempt to accost JA--it's over as far as he is concerned. But JA feels a surge of anger and thinks to herself, "You b*stard, that's the last time you're gonna to talk to ME like that!", notices the knife a couple seconds later, grabs it and proceeds with the slice and dice of TA.
Both scenarios involve a prior 'reflection' to intentionally kill someone, so both would qualify for 1st degree premeditated murder, right? But to me those are very different crimes--one should be worthy of the DP if it is in effect, while the other perhaps shouldn't. Maybe the existing definition of 'premeditation' should be reserved for events like the first scenario, while the second should come under a different law, even though there was also a moment of reflection and an intent to kill. I don't think his mean words alone in scenario 2 would be enough to establish some sort of justifiable 'provocation' to make it M2 or manslaughter...