tlcya
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Premeditation is a legal term, requiring "malice aforethought". Specific intent requires more than just "wanting to kill someone". For premeditated murder, you would have to have a specific intent to end the life of the specific victim.
"digging a grave" isn't necessarily legal premeditation, there has to be specific intent to kill the person. However, digging a grave is indicative of intent. It would require specific evidence to prove intent.
Understand what I'm saying? Let me illustrate my point. P and A go into a back yard and "dig a grave". P then goes out, without A's knowledge, and kills someone and burried them in the "grave". A does not have the specific intent for premeditated murder.
Respectfully snipped and BBM
What if there is intent to kill a living victim but no real preference or decision to kill a specific victim? In other words, IYO, would there need to be intent to kill a specific person for there to be premeditated murder in the first? Or would it be some other form of murder if there was intent to kill someone/anyone based on availability/convenience but not a specific victim in mind?
TYIA for your thoughts on this.