mostly reasons too subjective to mention (including as Simplestarz says, the time gap between the incident & crime seems stretched), but I just think police would’ve checked this angle out long ago. (I tend to assume the perp is someone un-investigated, and off police radar).
All this does make me wonder about one small matter though: many people think the bag-note ‘sounds’ like a female, in part because the word “jealous” seems more likely used by a female than a male — I agree that’s generally true for American males, BUT what about in Latin culture? — do male Latinos possibly use the word “jealous” more often/freely? Just wondering…
Is there any evidence for the idea that men use the word "jealous" less than women? I mean, it's not a word that I use very often, and this seems like one of those ideas that people have just taken on as truth without even really questioning whether it's true or not. Woman on woman violent crime is uncommon, so it seems like that would trump anything about a note that may or may not be true (and yes, if people insist, I'll spend time finding links to gender distributions of violent crime).
ETA (
https://www.bjs.gov/content/pub/pdf/wo.pdf)
14% of violent crimes are committed by women (or conversely, 86% by men)
11% of violent crimes are woman-on-woman
75% of those are simple assaults (female-committed violent crimes other than simple assault = 25%*14% = 3.4% of all violent crimes)
Murders committed by women = 1.3 per 100,000
Murders committed by men = 11.5 per 100,000
Per capita, there are 6xs more male offenders than female ones
The above numbers are probably not the most recent ones, but I would be willing to bet that the current stats are largely consistent, even if the absolute numbers are smaller (since the crime rate has been going down for three decades).