I thought I heard the discussion the other day in the courtroom, when the jury was NOT present, of the judge discussing the 'accomplice' part and the Murder 1 vs possible Murder 2.
I believe the judge said there's enough evidence from the crime scene and the victim's body, to indicate that the 'intention' of the person who committed the crime was nothing else except to KILL the victim.
I think he means that the extreme damage done, (ie the amount of blows), the INTENT was to KILL and there's no way this could have been 'not planned' as while the perp was striking, they COULD have stopped, but they intended to KILL them, so they just kept striking, over and over and over. And, IMHO, did a little back-up of strangulation.
OTOH, about the possibility of a 2nd perp. There are two items that COULD be questionable and IF there were a 2nd perp it could have been them. Like the gas, for one, ...............and IMHO, the size 10 shoe print. Although the pros came up with a plausible explanation on how it could have been JY, the judge thought IF there was a 2nd person involved, the def would be guilty just as the other guy, as basically stated above, the INTENT was to KILL and BOTH, (if there is another) would be just as guilty as the other.
JMHO
fran