Interesting that in DM's statement, when he says what time he 'went back' to 'the house' on Nov 29th (6-6:30pm), and noticed his dad "seemed to *still* be asleep in bed, which was odd, because it was late in the 'afternoon'".
Firstly, if one had attended a business meeting on the day BEFORE this, some 30 hours previously, would one say 'he went back to the house'? Or would one say, 'he went to the house'? ie if one goes somewhere twice within a short span of time, one would be considered to 'go back', however if one goes there one day, and then not again until the next day at an even later time of day, like say perhaps to work, that would not be considered going 'back' to the place.?? moo.
Secondly, why would he say his dad was 'still' asleep in bed? Wouldn't the normal thing to assume, if one had no knowledge of this event, be instead that his dad went for a nap? Who would automatically at first thought, assume that his dad had been asleep all day long?