KaaBoom
`·.¸¸ ><((((º> ...·´`·.¸¸ ><((((º>...·
- Joined
- Oct 30, 2012
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Due process has nothing to do with lapse of time since crime was committed. It's the lapse of time from arrest until trial. This murder was arrested but never had a trial. It's our constitutional right to a speedy trial after being charged. He is free because trying him in court so many years after his arrest (not years after crime committed) violates his constitutional rights.
I understand that but, I would argue due process does apply. That you can't have due process after so much time has passed.