That's okay, maybe it won't make sense to some or be confusing no matter how I put it, but I'll give it one last try.
For context -- on yesterday's thread after the blood testing results were published and posted here and they were being discussed six ways from Sunday -- I was responding to one OP's query whether the stains overall could have been a red herring, and another OP's comment that having left alot of reddish brown stains around his apartment seemed odd.
So my theory in response was that assuming he knew his blood was on the mattress pad and uncased pillow, and he knew the rest of the reddish brown stains were not blood (because that would be obvious, IMO, at least when he stripped the bed before leaving for PA and looked around to see if anything needed cleaning) that he put and/or left the nonblood stains there on purpose.
If he put them there and then left the stains t
hat looked enough like they could be blood, that LE sampled them to see if they were blood, when he knew they were not blood, then that could be a ruse on his part.
Because out of all the samples of reddish brown stains LE collected and tested to see if they were blood, only 2 were blood and they were only on the bed where there would be understandable reasons for its presence (nosebleeds, nicked while shaving, yada yada), and so, IMO:
- LE look like they were duped into (for lack of a better term) testing all the reddish brown stains elsewhere thinking they could all have been blood from the victims, which if they had been would have been huge evidence tying him to the murders
- LE went to the time, expense, and trouble of sampling a bunch of stains that looked like blood but weren't, which just added to the "noise" of evidence collection and testing without any evidentiary return
ETD last 2 bullets
MOO