Bear with me ... I'm trying to understand ... 22 years ago he was cooking meth. Because he cooked meth, he must have been associated with a gang like the hell's angels. 22 years later, he is still cooking meth and therefore still has connections with gangs. Police have not charged him with cooking meth, but that is only because he is very clever and they have not discovered his meth lab. Through his connections with the gang, either they set him up for the murders, or the gang murdered a five year old boy and his grandparents because the accused has control of gangs and they commit murders for him. Is that the line of reasoning?
Not even close to what I was trying to say. Where are you getting all of this gang stuff from?