KenzieK
Member
- Joined
- Feb 20, 2017
- Messages
- 79
- Reaction score
- 46
The original order was never served to the respondent: https://mycourts.in.gov/PORP/Search/Detail?ID=792930
I'm not entirely sure, but I don't think the order needs to be formally served if there was a hearing and the decision was made in court with the respondent present. Both RL and his wife attended the hearing, and the judge issued the one year order right then and there. They may have mailed him a copy of the order, but I doubt he would need to be "served".
From what I understand, the purpose of serving someone is to put them on notice or make them aware of something. Since he attended the court hearing he already knew the outcome, so no need to serve him. JMO.