I have read the article several times over as a former journalist/editor and looked for the bias. Here's my humble opinion. Using the word discourse to describe JM's argument could be construed as bias becuase the word is subjective. One person's discourse is another's brief statement. He should have nailed it down to specifics..Ex. JM argued the point for ten mintutes, or the transrcipt of JM's argument was 10 pages..leaving the reader to decide if it was "discourse."
When he talks about the "banter" between JM and JW did he leave out comments that would make JW look as unprofessional as JM ends up looking? If so, then it's bias. But if JW said nothing on that level...then it's not. And the same is true for the rest of it. If he left out comments made by JW or KN that made them look unprofessional or snarky,..then that's bias and the article is slanted. But if they never made those kind of remarks..then it is not bias to include JM's remarks. He said them.
The only other bias I found was that it's clear the reporter feels the judge was slow on the draw and should have admonished JM. By inluding the word "finally" when referring to the judge stepping in," he is showing how he feels and that he thinks she should have been more aggressive.( I agree with that but it should not be in the article.)
But overall, it's not bias to include statements JM made, if he made them.