Ok, I was thinking of this Amanda DNA thing.
Now, the argument is well, Amanda's DNA just happened to be in those exact spots that they collected, because well, her DNA was all over place because she lived there.
Then why weren't Laura or Filomena's DNA found in some samples? They lived there, too. In at least a few of them, shouldn't have their DNA be there, too, especially in Filomena's own room? I know their DNA supposedly wasn't taken, but even so, those samples should have then been "unidentified." Someone's DNA is there, but that person is not identifiable. Instead, it was Amanda's DNA. How does Amanda's DNA show up in an "unidentifiable person's" DNA? For all the numerous complicated DNA analysis I have seen on here, I don't think I've heard this simple question be acknowledged since I've been on here.
No one has ever seemed to take this simple fact into consideration, as far as I've seen from the arguments.
It's always, Amanda's DNA has a reason to be there (other than she was there during the murder).
All 4 roomates lived there. If the theory that DNA is everywhere is correct, the other roomates (or 3 of them) should have been equally represented in the house, DNA-wise. I'm leaving Meredith out because her DNA was already in almost everything due to the blood, so we couldn't have determined whether some of her DNA was in the house from the "everywhere' theory or not.
Same goes with the luminol footprints. f the Luminol supposedly reacted to something other than blood, the other 3 roomates' footprints did not show up under Luminol, even though they lived there, too. Only Amanda's.
I was thinking of this when I was just thinking about this whole issue, thinking I wish there was a control house somewhere where they could do experiments on how the occupants' DNA is found.
THen I thought.....wait, there are already controls built into this house.....Laura and Filomena.