The only thing that I don't understand about the diabolical muder theory is that she has 2 older children, with no previous indications of abuse. Why would she want to kill this little one and not the 2 before? Would it be because Lisa was a girl?
That was speculated to be the case in the Paula Sims case, gender related murder of her daughters, while her son remained unharmed. (she later claimed PPD after hearing about it in prison) So I guess it happens?
*answer not to be construed as agreeing wtih the diabolical murder or gender based incident whatsoever*