CO. Voting Offenses. Is Intent Needed?
“They don’t make really good criminal cases because it’s difficult to prove
criminal intent, that there was a
knowing violation of election law,” District Attorney John Newsome said.”* bbm (2005 MSM story, and not Chaffee Co. Dist Atty. Sorry, forgot who posted the link* to this, but TYVM

)
Is “criminal intent” or “knowing violation” an element in either ballot offense BM is charged w., an element Chaffee Co. Dist Atty must prove?
Many crim statutes spell out certain state of mind/mens rea as a necessary element for conviction, e.g., negligently, recklessly, knowingly, or purposely. If BM actually admitted marking the ballot, witnessing, etc. to FBI, would DA need to prove a given level of crim intent? Any thoughts?