IMO, in this and any case, just because LE states "foul play is not suspected", that doesn't mean a whole lot until an autopsy is done. IMO the phrase "foul play not suspected" simply means that upon a basic visual inspection of the body at the scene that there were no overt signs of foul play (body with bullet wounds, stab wounds, ligature around the neck, hands or feet tied up, etc). To me it just means there's nothing "obvious" to suggest foul play.....but that could easily change once autopsy and/or toxicology testing is done, or witnesses come forth with info.
But the "dog theory" referred to frequently is just that, a theory.....yet I read many comments here in which this "theory" is being taken as actual fact and being discussed as if it were a proven fact, and that puzzles me because WS is a place where we discuss theories and facts but we don't make a hypothetical theory into an actual fact.
