He and his attorney must be present in court on 10/23 @ 9a for term day - just got word by email from cc.
(case no. FE-14-1313)
Sorry if this is a silly question but what is term day?
He and his attorney must be present in court on 10/23 @ 9a for term day - just got word by email from cc.
(case no. FE-14-1313)
Sorry if this is a silly question but what is term day?
FWIW:
..."Matthews attorney, James L. Camblos III, said Tuesday he will not be representing Matthew in the Fairfax rape and abduction case. He also declined to say whether he told his client that the remains found Saturday are suspected of being Grahams."
http://www.bdtonline.com/news/article_014f083a-5965-11e4-b67d-67a03ffc3f40.html
Penetration with an object is the new definition of rape.
http://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/attor...isions-uniform-crime-report-s-definition-rape
I have a different interpretation of what is written in that article. It does not mean that 'penetration of an object' is the new definition of rape. My interpretation is that it would be included as one of the forms of rape. The new definition is more inclusive and encompasses other forms.
Is this standard for a defense attorney to only represent his client on some charges/in some jurisdictions?
I have a different interpretation of what is written in that article. It does not mean that 'penetration of an object' is the new definition of rape. My interpretation is that it would be included as one of the forms of rape. The new definition is more inclusive and encompasses other forms.
Fox News recently had a segment about Hannah. The news anchor was speaking to a detective who supposedly had said at the beginning that this could be a SK. The anchor asked if JM's being expelled from 2 schools on alleged rape charges could be brought up in trial but the detective didn't know VA law. Anyone on here know?
I think it would be great if the prosecutor could at least have the heads of the colleges testify as to why JM had been expelled. Shows a pattern.
I have a different interpretation of what is written in that article. It does not mean that 'penetration of an object' is the new definition of rape. My interpretation is that it would be included as one of the forms of rape. The new definition is more inclusive and encompasses other forms.
Do you feel it's implied that she was penetrated by an object, or what our standard view of rape is? Or, is it too ambiguous to know?
Do you feel it's implied that she was penetrated by an object, or what our standard view of rape is? Or, is it too ambiguous to know?
It would seem that with the definition of rape that's been posted, there wouldn't be a need to state "object" in JM's charges unless there was an object. If a body part was involved, which is also used in the definition, they wouldn't include "object" in the charges, would they? I wouldn't think so, but legal-eze can be extremely confusing.
The title of the code section is: "§ 18.2-67.2. Object sexual penetration; penalty."
"Object sexual penetration" covers both animate and inanimate sexual penetration - the statute doesn't require that they disclose whether it's animate or inanimate penetration - that detail will only likely be revealed at trial. "Object" is going to be in the wording regardless because that's how the code section is worded.
Is there a reason to debate what the object was that he used to rape the Ffx victim? I'm not being snarky; I'm genuinely curious. We know LE has forensic evidence - enough to charge JM, so I don't see what difference it makes.
With DNA proof, they absolutely must be beside themselves.
And, honestly, probably looking back on things and seeing moments where they could have stepped in and attempted to help him. Surely they saw his aggressive side. Surely they heard or witnessed his anger at women...
A lot of families live their lives in denial about who they really are and who their children actually are, though, so who knows...
He and his attorney must be present in court on 10/23 @ 9a for term day - just got word by email from cc.
(case no. FE-14-1313)