thesleuther
New Member
- Joined
- Dec 15, 2007
- Messages
- 318
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True. He would be the only one to benefit from the sale of the marital home. I maintain that it's value wasn't enough to entice someone to murder another, let alone to entice DP to murder someone.
Doesn't everyone agree that he has always had plenty o' cash because of his alleged 'dirty cop' dealings? (I've been reading about these allegations here for quite some time.) Why would someone with so many other options, murder a soon-to-be-ex-wife (and put himself in the spotlight as the prime suspect for that murder) when it wasn't monetarily "necessary?"
There's motive ....... and then there's REAL motive.
I don't believe he had real motive.
I believe he didn't give a hoot about half that house and had already moved on.
Proof of that?
Here it is:
He had already purchased a new house, just a couple of blocks away, and was living in it with Stacy -- when KS died.
Whatcha think?
:innocent:
I think that assets of over $600,000 are motive for murder. Add in the fact that he didn't know that she had changed the will beneficiary (thought he was going to inherit another million). Add in the child support that he WOULDN'T HAVE TO PAY TO A DEAD WOMAN.
The majority of people in the United States do not leave an estate valued at $600,000. Kathleen's was significant and is indeed a motive for murder.