respectfully split for clarity
Firstly, I never said you can act in self defence and be found guilty of culpable homicide. Your 2nd sentence and Q therefore does not apply, I agree it is impossible to negligently kill someone when you acted in self defence. I wonder where you got the idea I had said that from?
I did however say you can act in putative self defence and be found guilty of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide does not "remove intent from the equation" here. It only excludes intention to kill unlawfully, i.e. murder. It still means you intended to act lawfully, and intended to act in private defence, and even intended to kill lawfully i.e. you acted in putative private defence. So we come full circle and I see that your premise was flawed, so your conclusion about what I must have said about intention was flawed.
I never said you can act in self defence or putative self defence without intent. I agree it is impossible. I wonder where you got the idea I had said that from?I am no lawyer.....but I don't think you can be correct, Panda.
Self-defence, putative or not, relies on an acknowledgement of intent. "Yes, I killed that person. But I genuinely believed that person was about to kill me, and I felt I had no choice".
You cannot claim self-defence but deny intent. That would make no sense.
Since culpable homicide removes intent from the equation and replaces it with negligence, then a court cannot agree that you genuinely acted in self-defence but find you guilty of culpable homicide. Who negligently kills someone who is about to kill them?
Firstly, I never said you can act in self defence and be found guilty of culpable homicide. Your 2nd sentence and Q therefore does not apply, I agree it is impossible to negligently kill someone when you acted in self defence. I wonder where you got the idea I had said that from?
I did however say you can act in putative self defence and be found guilty of culpable homicide. Culpable homicide does not "remove intent from the equation" here. It only excludes intention to kill unlawfully, i.e. murder. It still means you intended to act lawfully, and intended to act in private defence, and even intended to kill lawfully i.e. you acted in putative private defence. So we come full circle and I see that your premise was flawed, so your conclusion about what I must have said about intention was flawed.
Just to re-iterate the point. No, the judge does not have to believe that he did not intend to harm or kill anyone. He has to believe that he did not intend to unlawfully kill anyone. There is a crucial difference.For OP to be found guilty of culpable homicide then the judge has to believe that he really did not intend to harm or kill anyone but that, in spite of the particular circumstances, he ought to have know he might and he ought to have known that would be an unlawful act.
I never said they were different notches, I just defined the terms. Where you place the notches will depend on the totality of factors in each circumstance.I am also not sure your understanding of Directus vs Eventualis is quite right, either. Murder does not drop down a notch just because you intended to harm or maim rather than kill.
Not murder directus, which I clearly was discussing. That would be dolus directus for the suitable charge of harm.Did you intend that person serious harm & they died? Directus.
Harm is not the definition of murder, I'm not sure why you think it is. It is unlawful killing. You can want to harm and not commit murder directus - this in fact probably accounts for most cases of murder eventualis.Did you not intend that specific person harm, but knew that your actions could well result in someone's death and still went ahead? Eventualis.