DK asked if I could share our view of how Mosiac law relates to the 10 Commandments.
First I must tell you that our Torah is the first 5 books of the Old Testament. All of the 613 Commandments, except the ones given to Moses, are found there. The Laws of Moses are the first 10, of course, and all the others are from those 10.
I can only tell you what I know from my perspective. Our laws are seen as a gift, not a curse or a thing to take away pleasure. If you love G-d, you are pleased to follow them. Most of the Commandments are ceremonial, cleanliness (it's where we get kosher from) and the like, but the main difference is, they are not only a set of religious enforcable laws, but civil as well. There is oral law, civil law and written law. Judaism draws no distinction in its laws between religious and non-religious life.
As far as Jesus abolishing the law, he did not. In his sermon on the mount he says specifically that he did not come to abolish them. Remember, he was speaking to Jews. At that time he was gathering followers and saying he was the manifestation of those Jewish laws. He was trying to show them that their traditional teachings were evading these laws. They had spent so much time gathering teachings that they were forgetful of just what they were suppose to be teaching about. To the point that it may have been thought of as idoltry, a sin, breaking a commandment by trying to follow a commandment.
Paul said that Mosiac law was a middle wall of partition that seperated the Jews from the Gentiles. Before this everyone was under the Patriarchal system, then the Hebrew were seperated as a holy people and Gentiles continued under the Patriarchal system until they were given the gospel.
Back to the Jews evading laws. It was really that they were blinded by their teachings that they could not see how G-d could have any plans for any other nation but their own. They were 'chosen' right? But in truth you can't really seperate one from the other until the Revelation of the Gentiles, which was what Peter received.
We are taught that the laws were just magnified, not written over, not taken away then re established. It would have been treason most high if Paul had tried to say he had re written any laws. In essence these men were still Jewish and thought that way. They thought that Jesus manifested everything that was the essence of the Jewish laws, as a fulfilment of Mosiac Law.
And just to make this clear as mud, how are they related? They are Jewish laws first and foremost, but with a conclusion per say. They were never abolished, they were expanded upon so that Jesus could finish them and pay for sins.
I will give a link to show what the 613 are that we follow and you can then see how they were all from 5 books of the Old Testament and were all derived from the first 10 Commandments.
http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
I'm not sure I described this fully, it's more complicated than just a mere reply window can hold lol.