otg, I appreciate your response and respect your opinion. Thank you for taking the time/energy to share a detailed and educated analysis.
Now, it seems I need to clarify my stance as I do not dispute Dr. Meyer's findings.
The autopsy report clearly indicates JonBenet suffered genital trauma near the time of death. I do not argue against a sexual assault having occurred subsequent to the murder. However, a pattern of previous & ongoing sexual abuse is not definitive. I believe this is a possibility. BUT, to build a theory on the presumption that JonBenet was subjected to prior, perhaps repeated, abuse would elicit too many assumptions & increase the probability of arriving at false conclusions. ...in my opinion.
And I agree with you on all that,
Mama. Forgive me if I misunderstood the point you questioned. If it is the
prior abuse only, that is not as well defined in the AR, but it is there -- albeit, not quite as “glaringly obvious” as
UKGuy noted.
I am not a medical type person, so a lot of this was all new to me when I started looking into it. But use of the word
chronic versus
acute in medical terms is not as you and I understand it (I’m assuming you’re not in the medical field either). Understanding this first helps to understand exactly what was being addressed in the AR. Rather than repeat it all, I’ll refer to posts where I tried to explain what I had come to understand about it [ame="http://www.websleuths.com/forums/showpost.php?p=9746303&postcount=1654"]here[/ame] and [ame="http://www.websleuths.com/forums/showpost.php?p=9750506&postcount=1657"]here[/ame]. The bottom line is that the terms refer to the stage of healing that an injury is at.
Chronic does not necessarily mean that something has to be repeated multiple times, but rather that an injury is at a certain stage in healing and therefore it is distinguishable from a recent injury. The length of time in that healing process is dependent on several factors, but mostly the severity of the injury and where it occurs. The changes that happen during the healing process are not as grossly obvious (
macroscopically) as they are under microscopic examination, which is why the coroner did this type of examination with the cells stained.
His findings were that the entire inside surface of JonBenet’s vagina (
all sections of the vaginal mucosa) had
vascular congestion (engorgement of blood at that level) and the type of inflammation which indicated prior injury/injuries that had begun to heal (
focal interstitial chronic inflammation).
There was an area of hymenal tissue that had a “1 cm red-purple area of abrasion” (the abrasion would be
acute) from which he removed a sample for microscopic examination. His finding from it was that it contained “
epithelial erosion with underlying capillary congestion.” IOW, it had an
eroded surface (resulting from repeated exposure) with increased capillary activity (the body’s response indicating a healing injury).
[As an aside from the point of chronic injury, I should point out here that in that part of the AR addressing the section of hymen examined under a microscope, Meyer says, "A small number of red blood cells is present on the eroded surface," and, "Acute inflammatory infiltrate is not seen." He is pointing out here that the abraided surface has some red blood cells present indicating a recent injury (
acute). But since there is no inflammatory infiltrate present, the body hasn't had a chance to respond to the injury -- meaning it was very close in time to her death.]
These are the things specifically stated that speak to the prior abuse. But beyond that, there are also implied things that require interpretation based on what the coroner states and what we are supposed to know. Remember though that the coroner states what he sees assuming anyone who reads the AR will know what it means -- he doesn’t write it for the layperson. So when he tells us that her “uterus measures 3 x 1 x 0.8cm,” and that the hymenal orifice is “1x1 cm,” and that the “hymen itself is represented by a rim of mucosal tissue extending clockwise between the 2 and 10:00 positions,” we are supposed to understand that she has very little left of a hymen (which is something Nancy Grace doesn’t seem to understand). In fact, it is completely missing in the upper one-third of its circumference (clockwise from 10 to 2). What
is there in the lower two-thirds (clockwise from 2 to 10) is an eroded and retracted “rim” of tissue, meaning that it has been exposed repeatedly enough to cause this reaction. A single forceful entry will usually cause tears (none of which were noted in the AR) and bleeding in the membrane. (This is despite the misconceptions of pubescent boys about a mysterious organ called a “cherry” that gets “popped” during first intercourse.) After repeated exposure, the hymen erodes and retracts until it is no longer present.
This is all stuff that shouldn’t matter whether you or I are IDI or RDI. This is all information found in the AR. We can disagree politely with one another on who we think is responsible, but there really shouldn’t be any disagreement on the injuries and what they mean. Again, Medicalese is not my native language (I'm still learning it), so if I wasn’t clear in explaining what I was trying to say, or if you (or anyone) has any questions about what I meant, just let me know and I’ll be glad to discuss it more with you.