Hi
I’m back on WS and new to this thread. I’ve been trying to familiarize myself with the BS/HS case (LE facts and various theories discussed by others), and have found myself also wondering a few things discussed by others in this thread.
Theory 1) The murders were committed by persons(s) “very close” to the Shermans…”follow the money” etc.
IF so, then why the stalking or following the Shermans weeks before and leading up to the murders, per LE? Wouldn’t such family member(s) have insider knowledge to know when both were going to be home alone - he/she knew BS was going to be home early that evening and specifically chose that time frame to commit the murders so as to stop something from happening (changes to a will?) in order to maintain his/flow of $. And IF so, why not simply stage it as a burglary gone bad given the number of break ins in the area? Or why not just stage suicide via other means such as overdose? Why strangulation? Why by the pool? Why the Canadian tire belts? What significance did any of the staging have? To humiliate? BUT who would have gained from humiliating both BS and HS? Thus, not only for financial gain but also revenge due to anger and possibly hate? Does the act of humiliating BS and HS hint to his/her need to have power over them? IF so, who had felt (or was feeling or would soon feel) powerless in the family circle? Who felt shamed by either of them?
On that note…I also wonder a lot about the involvement of JS and a business partner who was said to have a lot of influence on JS. Was JS blackmailed by the business partner in any way, as in “do it or else!”? Did JS blackmail anyone into doing it?
Makes me also wonder whether JS or business partner or both were involved in grand scale money laundering and BS and HS had to act before getting tied up in it?
Theory 2) The NW (a disgruntled individual who had crossed paths with the Shermans at some point) committed the murders to seek revenge. IF so, why the need to stage the bodies as such? Why HS and not just BS or vise versa? Why the need to commit the murders during such a specific time frame and how would they have had knowledge of the fact that BS and HS were going to be home alone between 8:30-9pm. Is this specific time frame merely coincidental? What would this individual gain by staging it as murder-suicide?
Theory 3) It was done by big pharma. IF so, why the need to stage murder-suicide?
Theory 4) Targeted due to HS and BS connection Israel/Jewish/anti-semitism/hate crime. IF so, why the need to stage murder-suicide? To buy time to skip the country? WHY that specific time frame/that day? Why not any other day such as the next day?
MOO