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That ^^^is gobbledy gook, in my opinion.Study controlled for confounding factors. Which means you can't attribute higher death rate to history of heart disease.
"After controlling for multiple confounding factors (age, sex, race or ethnicity, body-mass index, underlying cardiovascular disease and its risk factors, diabetes, underlying lung disease, smoking, immunosuppressed condition, and baseline disease severity), when compared with mortality in the control group (9·3%), hydroxychloroquine (18·0%; hazard ratio 1·335, 95% CI 1·223–1·457), hydroxychloroquine with a macrolide (23·8%; 1·447, 1·368–1·531), chloroquine (16·4%; 1·365, 1·218–1·531), and chloroquine with a macrolide (22·2%; 1·368, 1·273–1·469) were each independently associated with an increased risk of in-hospital mortality."
https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(20)31180-6/fulltext
The 'treatment' group has MORE patients with a history of heart arrhythmia than the control group.
"Ventricular arrhythmias were more common in the treatment groups compared with the control population. Mortality was higher in the treatment groups compared with the control population (p<0·0001; appendix pp 15–18).'
And then surprise, the treatment group had a higher number of patients who died from heart arrhythmia. So it is an obvious outcome. One group had more patients with a history of heart disease than the other group. So why ignore that in the final analysis?