Not trying to be argumentative, but do you know this for a fact? It definitely makes sense. I just don’t see how she would have been able to swing it.
It’s been speculated that she received the house in a divorce settlement and she paid for it using alimony.
My problem with that is, I don’t think the first husband was ever making very much money. Currently he’s a public defender making $65k per year. Newly minted lawyers at prestigious firms don’t make very much, either. It takes a while for that $$ degree to pay for itself.
And if the marriage was of short duration and there were no children, I doubt he’d have to pay her much, if anything at all (I don’t know much about divorce, least of all in NC). Would that house be considered a marital asset?
Sorry, just going off on a tangent here, with all my opinions and speculating.
Why would a single woman move into that giant house all by herself and take it all on alone?