So the paper says there is no evidence a crime has been committed. How does the DNA testing fit into all of this. Strange! Poor reporting? Manipulating the suspect? This is just too much for me. I never sleep!
A voluntary OD by DS would fit that profile. While there would be an
en passant crime, presumably FG providing DS the substance she took to overdose would fall under some sort of manslaughter (voluntary?) rubric; followed by an
ex post facto crime/crimes (moving and concealing DS)---
[ mildly graphic details follow]
However, in terms of DS's passing, it wouldn't be an evidence-rich, blood-splatter on walls, carpet, furniture, etc defensive wounds on POI, broken furniture, holes in walls or whatever--crime scene.
[sorry, graphic]
DNA -- suppose DS starts to OD, FG moves her to a bedroom/bed to lay her down to try to deal with her situation. Do his EMT thing, essentially. Well, while a person who is overdosing wouldn't or shouldn't bleed, they'll likely throw-up, perspire profusely, etc. a few non-blood bodily fluids discharged in that situation.
Heck, Dexter Morgan constructed elaborate "kill rooms" to avoid leaving an evidence trail, and he was cutting people in a controlled manner. Someone killing someone in a "fight" or "attack" type scenario? That house would be an evidence-rich crime scene and I doubt anyone would've been allowed back in that house except LE after the first search.
If LE did find a throw-up spot, it should be filthy with whatever substance was ingested immediately prior to throwing up. Also, FG may well have induced vomiting, in a
hypothetical overdose scenario.