I understand this, and it is a good point. However, I'd like to be clear on another point. I realize that the 'trajectory of contagion' is different with flu having high risk when a person is pre-symptomatic, and ebola having, perhaps, highest risk at the time of death. And, I realize that a cold or flu is apt to attack the respiratory system, which creates droplet transmission, and that Ebola does not particularly attack the respiratory system. With these two points understood, would it be accurate to say, using the medical definition of 'airborne transmission' that: "Ebola does not have airborne transmission, just as colds or flu do not have airborne transmission." That's the understanding that I've gotten, and frankly, it's not nearly as comforting as it should be.