Okay, let's assume for a moment that DB did think the phones were restricted and didn't make that 8:30 pm call to MW's phone.
There were 2 adults (possibly 3, if you count the brother) in the home at 8:30pm (per DB). I doubt the neighbor would call from DB's cell phone, but if she did, how did SHE know the phones weren't restricted, but DB not know that? Let's say the brother was there that night (and I'm not convinced that he was), how does HE know that he can make a call to MW's phone, but DB doesn't know that?
Just doesn't make sense, imo. These were DB's phones. The logical person to use one of these phones would be the person who had possession of the phones. In this case, that would be DB (since JI wasn't home at 8:30 pm). Why is it so mind boggling to so many people that DB made this call herself, and then lied about the phones being restricted. It's not like we don't have evidence of her lying already?
I don't get it. I really don't. The obvious, simple answer is usually the correct answer. IMO