The argument against including multiple victims as an aggravator was certainly interesting...one of their reasonings (there were others just as eyebrow raising) IMO was the argument that it's possible not all of the murders would meet 1st degree (again, MOO).
Now, I'm not a legal expert so I don't know the specifics of what Idaho considers murder 1 and whether any of the other charges raises this to murder 1.k
BUT.... with my general understanding, my mind immediately jumps to the theory that he pre-planned/pre-meditated going inside of the house to kill 1 and ended up murdering 4 (MOO). Is this a window into the prosecutors case?
Any lawyers in here have an opinion? Was it strictly a legal argument or is it more prescient?
MOO