Catching up on today… my biggest question to anyone who thinks there was a 2nd person present at the murders- why would RA not have given them up by now? Genuinely, what is the reasoning there?
Absolutely nothing we've heard about RA before arrest or whilst in prison suggests to me he is stoic or "noble" enough to take the fall for someone. If he’s distressed enough in prison to be (allegedly) faking psychiatric symptoms, spreading feces around his cell, eating paper, feeling that the only chance he has to be reunited with his family is in heaven and begging God for forgiveness, being heard repeatedly begging his wife and mother not to abandon him "no matter what he's done", etc., why on earth would he not flip on whoever is supposed to have been there with him after two YEARS? Does it all just come down to the idea that he's being threatened by a cult/conspiracy and therefore scared into silence..?
I’m being serious, I’m very curious to understand the train of thought. I understand the crime scene is odd etc., I understand the feeling that there has to be a missing piece here somewhere. I'm specifically and only interested in why RA would be staying silent if there was a 2nd party rather than cut a deal.
eta: "Because RA simply had nothing to do with the murders" is not at all realistic at this point and not a real answer, jmo, but thanks to those of you who are sharing your thoughts, appreciate the discussion regardless.